Understanding Implied Volatility in Options Pricing

A trader is analyzing a European call option on a stock currently priced at $100. The option has a strike price of $105, an expiration period of 6 months, and a risk-free interest rate of 2%. The trader notices that the market price of the option is significantly higher than what the Black-Scholes model suggests based on the given input parameters. Given this divergence, the trader believes that the market participants might have a higher expectation of future volatility than the historical volatility of the stock.

To quantify this expectation, the trader decides to calculate the implied volatility derived from the market price of the option. If the Black-Scholes model prices the option at $4 when assuming a historical volatility of 20%, but the market price of the call option is $6, what can the trader conclude about the implied volatility? Specifically, which of the following statements is correct regarding the relationship between implied volatility and the option price?