John is a portfolio manager overseeing a diversified fund with a significant allocation to equities. Recently, he has experienced heightened volatility in the markets, which has raised concerns among his clients about potential risks to their investments. To assess this risk, John decides to analyze his fund’s beta coefficient and the Value at Risk (VaR) methodology.
With the beta coefficient being 1.2, he understands that his fund is expected to be 20% more volatile than the market. He also evaluates the one-month VaR at a 95% confidence level, which indicates the maximum expected loss over one month given normal market conditions.
Considering John's situation, which of the following statements accurately describes a potential limitation of using only beta and VaR for risk management?